What's the first wrong statement in the proof below that $ \triangle BDE \cong \triangle BCE$ $ \; ?$ $ \overline{BC} $ is parallel to $ \overline{DF} $. This diagram is not drawn to scale. $A$ $B$ $C$ $D$ $E$ $F$ Givens $ \overline{CF} \cong \overline{BD}$ $, \ $ $ \angle CFE \cong \angle DBE$ $, \ $ $ \overline{EF} \cong \overline{BE}$ $, \ $ $ \angle ABC \cong \angle DBE$ $, \ $ $ \overline{AB} \cong \overline{BE}$ $, \ $ and $\ $ $ \angle BAC \cong \angle BED$ Proof $ \triangle BDE \cong \triangle FCE$ because SAS $ \overline{DE} \cong \overline{CE}$ because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent $ \angle ECF \cong \angle CBE$ because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent $ \triangle BCA \cong \triangle BDE$ because ASA $ \angle CEF \cong \angle BED$ because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent $ \triangle BDE \cong \triangle BCE$ because SSS
Try going through the proof yourself: write down the givens, and then see if they justify the next step for the reason given. Then do the same thing for the next step, and the next, until you run into something that you can't justify, or you finish the proof. $ \angle CBE \cong \angle ECF$ is the first wrong statement.